The peculiar results of an infinite universe

General physics and astronomy discussions not directly related to Celestia
Brendan
Posts: 296
Joined: 15.07.2003
With us: 21 years 4 months
Location: Bellows Falls, VT
Contact:

Re: Something can exist once in an infinite universe

Post #61by Brendan » 07.07.2006, 10:15

Crowley wrote:Why does the equation seem to work out so well? - Because You make a mistake by dividing by infinity.

I don't know how to write the infinity symbol here, so I use "i" instead. Let's say I have a number "a" which is neither zero nor infinity. Your assumption is that:

a / i = 0 (for all (a != 0 and a != i))

This is wrong. It is just as wrong as

a / 0 = i

would be. Tempting, but wrong. There is a trivial proof to it. Take the equation

a / i = 0

and multiply it with i:

a = 0 * i

0 and i are constants, but a is a variable. Remember? a stands for every number that is neither 0 nor i! So a could be 1, 2, 3 or -2.9873 . How could two constants mulitplied with each other result in a variable? So now: What's the result of zero mutliplied with infinity?


Changing a / i = 0 to a = 0 * i is like doing this:

a / i = 0

a * i / i = 0 * i

a * 1 = 0 * i

a = 0 * i

Isn't i / i an indeterminate form? So it shouldn't be treated like the number one. Zero times infinity is also an indeterminate form.

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Better ways of writing the equations a / i = 0 and a / 0 = i would be in terms of limits like this:

lim x->i a/x = 0
lim x->0 a/x = i

When I was in precalculus half a decade ago, the teacher had us write the = symbol in equations like the two above as -> so we'd understand that the limit is approached by the function as the variable, like the x in the examples, approached a number or infinity. :)
Specs: 3500 AMD 64, 1GB RAM, PCI Express GeForce 7600 GS with 256MB, Debian Lenny on 250 GB drive, Windows XP Media Center on 250 GB drive

Fightspit
Posts: 510
Joined: 15.05.2005
With us: 19 years 6 months

Re: Something can exist once in an infinite universe

Post #62by Fightspit » 07.07.2006, 11:21

For me, the equation:

Code: Select all

a / i = 0

gives:

Code: Select all

a = 0    for all i different of 0


That's all !

Edit:
I edited about i different of 0.
Last edited by Fightspit on 07.07.2006, 13:04, edited 1 time in total.
Motherboard: Intel D975XBX2
Processor: Intel Core2 E6700 @ 3Ghz
Ram: Corsair 2 x 1GB DDR2 PC6400
Video Card: Nvidia GeForce 8800 GTX 768MB GDDR3 384 bits PCI-Express 16x
HDD: Western Digital Raptor 150GB 10000 rpm
OS: Windows Vista Business 32 bits

Crowley
Posts: 7
Joined: 04.07.2006
With us: 18 years 4 months

Re: Something can exist once in an infinite universe

Post #63by Crowley » 07.07.2006, 11:54

Brendan wrote:Changing a / i = 0 to a = 0 * i is like doing this:

a / i = 0

a * i / i = 0 * i

a * 1 = 0 * i

a = 0 * i

Isn't i / i an indeterminate form? So it shouldn't be treated like the number one. Zero times infinity is also an indeterminate form.
That's exactly what I think! Moreover, I am sure that "a / i" is also indeterminate.
Better ways of writing the equations a / i = 0 and a / 0 = i would be in terms of limits like this:

lim x->i a/x = 0
lim x->0 a/x = i
That's definetly better. But it has the backdraw that You don't have a handy value for x=i then, so You cannot base any imagination about an infinite universe on that then.
When I was in precalculus half a decade ago, the teacher had us write the = symbol in equations like the two above as -> so we'd understand that the limit is approached by the function as the variable, like the x in the examples, approached a number or infinity. :)

Hmm. As You write of it... I vaguely remember that there was something similar in my math class.

Crowley
Posts: 7
Joined: 04.07.2006
With us: 18 years 4 months

Re: Something can exist once in an infinite universe

Post #64by Crowley » 07.07.2006, 11:59

Fightspit wrote:For me, the equation:

Code: Select all

a / i = 0

gives:

Code: Select all

a = 0    for all i


That's all !

What do You mean with "for all i"? In this part of the discussion, "i" is short for "infinity"! (I don't see an easy way for writing the mathematical infinity symbol in this forum, that's why I chose "i".)

Fightspit
Posts: 510
Joined: 15.05.2005
With us: 19 years 6 months

Post #65by Fightspit » 07.07.2006, 13:06

Of course, if we know a ( a = 4 for exemple), "i" must be infinity to be near of 0.
Motherboard: Intel D975XBX2
Processor: Intel Core2 E6700 @ 3Ghz
Ram: Corsair 2 x 1GB DDR2 PC6400
Video Card: Nvidia GeForce 8800 GTX 768MB GDDR3 384 bits PCI-Express 16x
HDD: Western Digital Raptor 150GB 10000 rpm
OS: Windows Vista Business 32 bits

Crowley
Posts: 7
Joined: 04.07.2006
With us: 18 years 4 months

Post #66by Crowley » 07.07.2006, 13:24

Fightspit wrote:Of course, if we know a ( a = 4 for exemple), "i" must be infinity to be near of 0.

"i" is not a variable, the mathematical constant for infinity (???) is meant! And the question is what is

a / ???

for all a != 0 and a!= ??? ?

My arguments point out that You cannot compute this value, it's just not defined. Defining it, for example as zero, would lead to contradictions.

jebus
Posts: 4
Joined: 28.08.2006
With us: 18 years 2 months

Post #67by jebus » 28.08.2006, 07:15

Well I will try to explain a few things about infiniity (also the use of i for infinity drives me crazy as i = sqrt(-1) )

0/0, ???/??? , 0*???, ???-???, 1^??? are all indeterminite forms.

Now concerning the case of a/b=0, this means that a is 0 and b is finite, or a is finite and b is infinite.


Return to “Physics and Astronomy”